The “Second Coming”?

There are 5 verses/passages that have puzzled me for many years and I haven’t said anything about them due to fear of being wrong or being “stoned to death.” But, after digging much deeper into them, I see something that is very dangerous and embarrassing to the status quo.

As you read these 5 verse/passages, consider carefully how you would have heard and understood these words of Jesus if you had been with Him back then and there, sitting at His feet, and listening, intently?

#1

In Matthew 10:23, while Jesus was talking with his disciples before sending them out to preach, he included this promise: But when they persecute you in this city, flee ye into another: for verily I say unto you, Ye shall not have gone over the cities of Israel, till the Son of man be come.” (KJV)

In the Amplified Bible, it says, “…Truly I tell you, you will not have gone through all the towns of Israel before the Son of Man comes.”

Who was Jesus’ audience? His disciples.

When did Jesus promise (“Truly I tell you”) His disciples that He (“the Son of man”) would “come”? Jesus said He would come “BEFORE” they had preached “through all the towns of Israel”.

And what “coming” is He referring to? Does it have anything to do with the 4 following “coming” promises?

#2

In Matthew 16:27-28, Jesus tells his disciples, “For the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father with his angels; and then he shall reward every man according to his works. Verily I say unto you, There be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom.” (KJV)

The gospels of Mark and Luke relate this last sentence by Jesus:

Mark 9:1 (KJV): Verily I say unto you, That there be some of them that stand here, which shall not taste of death, till they have seen the kingdom of God come with power.”

Luke 9:27 (KJV):I tell you of a truth, there be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the kingdom of God.”

Who was Jesus’ audience? His disciples, those standing there beside him.

Who did Jesus say “the Son of man”/“the kingdom of God” would “come” to? His disciples, those who would not die before they saw “the Son of man”/“the kingdom of God”.

#3

jesus-before-caiaphas
Jesus on trial before Caiaphas and the Sanhedrin

In Matthew 26:62-63, Caiaphas, the high priest, demanded that Jesus respond to him and the Sanhedrin regarding all the accusations being leveled against him and to confirm whether or not he was “the Christ, the Son of God.” Then, in verse 64, Jesus said, “Thou hast said: nevertheless I say unto you, Hereafter shall ye see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.” (KJV)

The gospels of Mark and Luke recount this scene as well, including Jesus saying…

Mark 14:62: “…Ye shall see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven.” (KJV)

Luke 22:69: Hereafter shall the Son of man sit on the right hand of the power of God.” (KJV)

Who was Jesus’ audience? Caiaphas and the Sanhedrin.

Who did Jesus say would see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven? Caiaphas and the Sanhedrin.

When did Jesus say Caiaphas and the Sanhedrin would see this? “Hereafter” or after this or in the future (namely Caiaphas and the Sanhedrin’s future, not 1900+ years later).

#4

In Matthew 24, after Jesus told his disciples that the temple would be leveled, the disciples asked Jesus, “Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world?” (KJV) In response, Jesus answered both questions with a prophetic panorama of exactly what was coming and told them when it would all happen, divinely linking the time of his coming to the destruction of the temple: “…As the lightning cometh out of the east, and shineth even unto the west; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be… then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory… Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled.” (verses 27, 30 and 34 in the KJV)

The gospels of Mark and Luke convey this prophecy as well and include…

Mark 13:30 (KJV): “Verily I say unto you, that this generation shall not pass, till all these things be done.”

Luke 21:32 (KJV): “Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass away, till all be fulfilled.”

Who was Jesus? audience? His disciples.

What generation did Jesus say would see “all these things”? “This generation”, as in the generation He was in [Note: In Matthew 12:39, 41-42, 45, 16:4, 17:17 and 23:36, Jesus uses this same word (“generation” Strong’s # G1074), as he also does in Mark 13:30 and Luke 21:32, to speak of the generation, age and time, he lived in. For a more in-depth look at what “this generation” means, click here.]

#5

In John 21:22, after Peter asked about John, Jesus answered, “If I will that he tarry till I come, what is that to thee? follow thou me.”

When did John die? Around 100 AD, according to most scholars.

Now, considering all 5 of these verses/passages together, why do so many Christians today still believe in a future “Second Coming”?

Comment below with any questions or ideas or insights you may have.

Thanks so much!

Joel Killion

P.S. Another verse that has caught my attention but that did not make the list is Luke 12:40 (KJV): “Be ye therefore ready also: for the Son of man cometh at an hour when ye think not.” Who was Jesus speaking to? Well, according to the context, he was speaking to his disciples. My question is, why do so many preachers use this verse to encourage people today to be ready for Jesus’ any-minute “Second Coming” when Jesus was clearly saying “YOU (disciples) be ready. The Son of man will come when YOU (disciples) don’t expect it.”

Why use “ye” and “you” if Jesus didn’t mean “ye” and “you” when addressing his disciples? If Jesus wasn’t referring to his and their generation, then what word could he have used other than “ye” and “you” if He did want to refer to them?

If you read Matthew 24, Mark 13 and Luke 21, you will notice that Jesus consistently addressed his disciples as “you”, “ye”, “yourselves”, etc. They were his audience. He never once addressed a future generation or age. He was speaking to those who were with him at that moment and told them what was coming while they were alive.

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